I was just looking through the New Spirit-Filled Life Bible and I came across this little aside at Matthew 4:4:
I’m on board with the first part that says “That which is said or spoken, an utterance…” BDAG similarly says, “that which is said, word, saying, expression, or statement” (BDAG, 905). I don’t even have an issue with the contrast of rhema with logos “which is the expression of a thought, a message, a discourse.” Again, BDAG similarly says, “a communication whereby the mind finds expression, word” (BDAG, 599). But it gets a bit hinky when it says that the entire Bible is logos while individual verses are rhema. How does that work exactly? What if the entire Bible is uttered? Is it rhema then? And is that point really illustrated in Ephesians 6:17? Or is it being creatively inserted?
Sure, at Matthew 4:4 Jesus quotes a single verse, but I think the way that Matthew intends that single verse, indeed all of the verses Jesus quotes in this section, is to draw the reader back to the exodus narrative as a whole. Matthew is narrating his story in such a way as to depict Jesus setting right Adam & Israel’s wrongs. In every place that Jesus succeeds in the temptation, Adam & Israel failed. Adam is God’s son, as is Israel, but Jesus is unique. He’s the beloved Son in whom God is well pleased. But the point here is that the individual verse stands in place of a larger story. The story is brought to life in Jesus’ action, not in his speaking one verse out of many, if that makes any sense. Thoughts?