How come Paul says that sin entered the world through one man (Rom. 5:12 cf. 1 Cor. 15:21) when the woman ate the fruit first (Gen. 3:6)? He acknowledges that Eve was deceived by the serpent’s cunning (2 Cor. 11:3) so why not attribute the sin to her, especially when she seems to claim that commandment as applying to her (Gen. 3:3)? Could it be that God actually gave the command to the man alone (Gen. 2:16)? The woman wasn’t even created when the command was given (cf. Gen. 2:21-23), which could explain why she misquoted it and added the bit about not being able to touch the fruit either. I wonder if Eve’s eyes were opened as soon as she ate the fruit or if she had to wait for Adam to eat the fruit before her eyes were opened—as it stands, the narrative just says that she ate it, then he ate it, and then both of their eyes were opened (Gen. 3:7). Is it possible that had Adam never eaten the fruit that sin never would have entered the world? Maybe.