We all know that there’s no such thing as a completely literal translation (unless perhaps we consider the dreaded Concordant Literal New Testament or maybe and interlinear). Just about all translations end up mixing dynamic and formal equivalency to varying degrees. But I was just thinking about the Aramaic Targums and the Septuagint, and how free they were with their translation. Indeed, we could certainly call large portions of the LXX paraphrases, and the Targums would fit that description as well. So I’m wondering, if paraphrases, or less formally equivalent translations, were what the ancients preferred, why don’t we? (or do we?) It’s quite common, dare I say almost intuative, to paraphrase a text, even at times when we have the text right in front of us. We naturally seek to give those we are communicating with the sense of the text rather than the exact letter, don’t we?
What say you?
B”H
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